Voting regulation is not a power expressed to Congress (except as related to ensuring no bias in race, age, and gender), so his unilateral action has no basis in law. But, when has a basis in law ever applied to him? Lawful grounds such as ‘consent’ has never applied to him before. Why would it now?



Trump doesn’t get to say shit about how the states run their elections. Even if he “Hereby Do Dee-clares” it. /s